Test how you apply HR concepts to workplace decisions, not just whether you recognize a definition. These 25 original PHR practice questions cover all seven domains in the current HRCI exam content outline. Each question includes four choices, a best answer, and an explanation of every option.
This is an independent study resource, not an HRCI exam, an official question bank, or a prediction of your exam result. The scenarios are fictional and were written for this page, not copied or reconstructed from exam items. A short set cannot establish exam readiness or reproduce every topic and weighting on the real exam.
How to use these questions
- Choose an answer before opening the explanation. Note whether you were confident, uncertain, or guessing.
- Identify the decision the question asks for. Separate the facts supplied from assumptions you would need to investigate in a real workplace.
- Read all four explanations, including when you answered correctly. A correct guess still identifies something worth reviewing.
- For calculations, write down the numerator, denominator, units, and time period before working through the arithmetic.
- Use the linked topic guide and primary source to review a missed concept. Then explain why the closest distractor fails without looking at the answer.
The set contains 4 Business Management questions, 3 Workforce Planning and Talent Acquisition questions, 3 Learning and Development questions, 4 Total Rewards questions, 4 Employee Engagement questions, 5 Employee and Labor Relations questions, and 2 HR Information Management questions. This is an approximate study distribution, not an exact simulation of the official percentages.
Turn a missed answer into a study task
A wrong answer is most useful when you can name the reason:
- Knowledge gap: Review the underlying concept or federal requirement, then write a one-sentence rule with its important conditions and exceptions.
- Calculation error: Rebuild the formula from the definition. Check whether you confused counts with rates, percentage points with percentage change, or total compensation with the additional overtime premium.
- Judgment error: Identify which option acts on the evidence and which option assumes facts, commits too early, or answers a different question.
- Reading error: Underline scope words such as first, federal, covered, nonexempt, and under the stated formula. Explain how each changes the answer.
For Business Management, Workforce Planning and Talent Acquisition, Learning and Development, and HR Information Management, use the PHR exam content outline guide to map the skill to the current domains. Review compensation and benefits in Total Rewards, surveys and performance management in Employee Engagement, and workplace complaints and collective rights in Employee and Labor Relations. Use the employment-law guide for the legal eligibility, reporting, and accommodation questions.
Your raw result describes performance on these 25 questions only. Do not convert it into an estimated HRCI scaled score or a pass probability. Prioritize concepts you missed or guessed, rather than repeatedly answering a set you have memorized.
Scope and source notes
The domain mapping follows HRCI’s current PHR content outline, linked from its official PHR certification page. HRCI currently weights the seven domains 14%, 14%, 10%, 15%, 17%, 20%, and 10%, respectively. Sources were checked October 18, 2026.
Legal questions use the federal framework and the specific facts stated. State or local law, collective bargaining agreements, employer policies, and facts omitted from a practice scenario may change a real workplace decision. Read the linked government sources for scope and exceptions. This page provides educational practice, not legal advice.
25 original PHR practice questions
Write down your answer and reasoning before opening each explanation. These are independent teaching questions, not actual or recalled HRCI examination items. The set is not a full-length simulation, and its score cannot predict an examination result.
Business Management
1. An HR dashboard defines monthly turnover as separations during the month divided by average employee headcount for that month. In April, there were 4 separations and an average headcount of 200. In May, there were 9 separations and an average headcount of 300. Which statement accurately describes the change?
Answer and explanation for question 1
Skill reviewed: Interpret a workforce metric without confusing counts, rates, and percentage points.
Best answer: B. Turnover rose from 2% to 3%, an increase of 1 percentage point.
- A: The 4.5% figure divides May separations by April headcount. Each month requires its own denominator.
- B: April is 4 / 200 = 2%; May is 9 / 300 = 3%. The difference is 1 percentage point, or a 50% relative increase in the rate.
- C: The separation count rose by 125%, but headcount also changed. A count increase and a rate increase are not interchangeable.
- D: A larger workforce does not establish a lower turnover rate. The rate increased because separations rose proportionally faster than headcount.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Business Management
2. A service company plans to extend customer support into the evening in eight weeks. Operations requests ten new hires, but has not estimated evening demand. Finance has approved a limited operating budget, and Training says new hires need four weeks to become proficient. What should the HR generalist do first to produce a defensible staffing recommendation?
Answer and explanation for question 2
Skill reviewed: Use cross-functional evidence to align HR implementation with an operating objective.
Best answer: D. Model demand, coverage options, costs, and readiness with the relevant stakeholders.
- A: Starting with the requested headcount treats an untested estimate as a requirement and may commit the limited budget to the wrong solution.
- B: Overtime is one option to evaluate, not an established answer. The scenario provides no evidence about employee capacity, cost, or sustainable coverage.
- C: The daytime ratio may be useful input, but evening volume and case complexity are unknown. Copying it does not resolve those assumptions.
- D: This combines business demand, financial limits, and implementation timing. It creates a basis for comparing hiring, scheduling, and other feasible coverage options before recommending one.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Business Management
3. An HR analyst is scoring bids for a new applicant tracking system. One bidder employs the analyst’s sibling as the account executive. Company procurement policy requires disclosure of personal relationships with bidders and a conflict review before participation continues. The sibling’s proposal currently has the highest technical score. What is the analyst’s best next action?
Answer and explanation for question 3
Skill reviewed: Apply an organizational conflict-of-interest policy without inventing a legal prohibition.
Best answer: A. Disclose the relationship and pause scoring until the conflict-review process determines the analyst’s permitted role.
- A: This follows the stated policy and allows an independent decision about recusal or other controls. It does not assume the bidder must be excluded.
- B: Disclosure after the selection does not satisfy the required review before participation continues and leaves the process exposed to an unmanaged conflict.
- C: A personal relationship does not, under the facts given, authorize the analyst to disqualify a bidder. Procurement must apply the established process.
- D: A strong proposal does not remove the relationship or the policy obligation. Technical merit and conflict management are separate issues.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Business Management
4. Finance verifies that a first-year onboarding redesign produced $54,000 in attributable savings and cost $40,000, including staff time. For this decision, the company defines ROI as (benefits minus costs) divided by costs, multiplied by 100. Ignoring taxes and the time value of money, what is the first-year ROI?
Answer and explanation for question 4
Skill reviewed: Calculate ROI using an explicit definition and a consistent cost base.
Best answer: C. 35%
- A: This is benefits divided by costs, multiplied by 100. The specified ROI formula subtracts costs from benefits first.
- B: This divides the $14,000 net benefit by $54,000 in benefits. The required denominator is the $40,000 investment.
- C: The net benefit is $54,000 - $40,000 = $14,000. Dividing $14,000 by $40,000 and multiplying by 100 gives 35%.
- D: This is the dollar net benefit. It is not a percentage return on the investment.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Workforce Planning and Talent Acquisition
5. Three supervisors interviewing applicants for the same dispatcher role have been using different questions and judging answers by personal impressions. A job analysis has identified the relevant competencies. Which redesign would most directly improve the consistency of candidate assessment?
Answer and explanation for question 5
Skill reviewed: Design a structured interview rather than merely standardize its paperwork.
Best answer: D. Use common job-related questions, behaviorally anchored scoring criteria, and interviewer calibration.
- A: A numerical label does not make different questions and personal standards comparable.
- B: The same interviewer may reduce one source of variation, but unrestricted questions still leave candidates assessed on different evidence.
- C: Common questions help, but different scoring standards preserve a major inconsistency.
- D: Shared questions and scoring standards make the evidence more comparable; calibration helps interviewers apply those standards consistently. The criteria should remain tied to the job analysis.
Topic references: opm.gov reference 1
Workforce Planning and Talent Acquisition
6. A selection procedure advances 30 of 100 applicants in one sex group and 60 of 120 applicants in the other. These are the only two groups in this screening analysis, and the underlying records have been checked. Using the four-fifths rule as a screening guideline, which conclusion is best supported?
Answer and explanation for question 6
Skill reviewed: Calculate selection rates and interpret an adverse-impact screen cautiously.
Best answer: B. The 60% impact ratio warrants review but does not establish illegality.
- A: Raw numbers selected ignore the different applicant-pool sizes. Compare selection rates instead.
- B: The rates are 30% and 50%; 30% / 50% = 60%. That falls below the guideline and warrants examination of the selection process and context.
- C: The actual calculation is 0.30 / 0.50 = 0.60. Different pool sizes are accounted for when calculating each selection rate.
- D: The four-fifths rule is a screening rule of thumb, not a standalone legal definition or finding of unlawful discrimination.
Topic references: eeoc.gov reference 1
Workforce Planning and Talent Acquisition
7. A recruiting team needs 12 accepted offers for a cohort. Its planning assumptions are that 25% of completed interviews lead to offers and 80% of offers are accepted. Assuming those yields hold, how many completed interviews should it plan for?
Answer and explanation for question 7
Skill reviewed: Work backward through a recruiting funnel using conditional conversion rates.
Best answer: C. 60
- A: Fifteen is the expected number of offers needed: 12 / 0.80. It is not the required interview volume.
- B: Forty-eight interviews would yield 12 offers, but only 9.6 expected acceptances at an 80% acceptance rate.
- C: The expected interview-to-acceptance yield is 0.25 x 0.80 = 0.20. Therefore, 12 / 0.20 = 60 interviews. This is a forecast, not a guaranteed outcome.
- D: Seventy-five interviews would yield 15 expected acceptances under these assumptions. That exceeds the volume needed for the stated target.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Learning and Development
8. After a software rollout, experienced claims processors miss the new processing-time target. They correctly demonstrate every required task in a realistic skills assessment. Workflow logs show that most delays occur while employees wait for a second team to grant system access. A manager requests refresher training for all processors. What should HR recommend first?
Answer and explanation for question 8
Skill reviewed: Distinguish a training need from a process or resource problem.
Best answer: A. Validate and address the access-approval bottleneck with the process owner before assigning broad refresher training.
- A: The evidence points to a workflow constraint rather than a demonstrated skill gap. Addressing that constraint tests the likely cause; targeted training can follow if a separate need emerges.
- B: Repeating instruction does not remove a queue controlled by another team. A performance gap is not automatically a training need.
- C: Satisfaction measures perceptions, not the cause of the delay. It would discard stronger evidence from the assessment and workflow logs.
- D: Advanced instruction assumes the slowest employees lack skills, contrary to the current assessment. It does not resolve the access dependency.
Topic references: opm.gov reference 1
Learning and Development
9. A customer-service course teaches employees to summarize the customer’s concern, confirm understanding, and propose a next step. HR wants evidence that employees use those behaviors on the job six weeks later. Which measure most directly answers that question?
Answer and explanation for question 9
Skill reviewed: Select evidence of learning transfer while recognizing causal limitations.
Best answer: D. A consistently scored sample of comparable customer interactions before and after training.
- A: Completion records show exposure to training, not use of the behaviors at work.
- B: A knowledge test can show learning but does not directly demonstrate workplace application.
- C: Complaints are a relevant business outcome, but the price change and other influences make that aggregate measure an indirect test of these specific behaviors.
- D: Scoring the target behaviors in actual interactions measures workplace application. Comparable cases and consistent scoring improve interpretability, though a before-and-after comparison alone does not prove causation.
Topic references: opm.gov reference 1
Learning and Development
10. A high-performing warehouse specialist is nominated as the only successor for a shift-manager role. The specialist has not supervised employees, and the role requires coaching, scheduling, and conflict resolution. The manager asks HR to label the specialist ready now. What is the strongest HR response?
Answer and explanation for question 10
Skill reviewed: Use role-specific evidence in succession and development planning.
Best answer: B. Assess target-role readiness and address demonstrated gaps through development.
- A: Success in the current job does not establish proficiency in all requirements of a different role.
- B: Readiness should be evaluated against the target role. Assessments and supervised stretch assignments can provide evidence and guide development without guaranteeing a promotion.
- C: The missing experience is a gap to assess, not automatic proof that the employee cannot become a viable successor.
- D: Course completion alone does not demonstrate readiness, and the facts do not justify a guaranteed promotion.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Total Rewards
11. A covered, nonexempt employee works 46 hours in one workweek at $24 per hour and earns a $92 nondiscretionary production bonus attributable entirely to that week. There is no other compensation or special overtime arrangement. Under the federal FLSA calculation, what total gross pay is due for the week, including the bonus and overtime? Ignore taxes and any additional state-law requirements.
Answer and explanation for question 11
Skill reviewed: Include a nondiscretionary bonus in the regular rate without double-counting overtime.
Best answer: C. $1,274
- A: This is straight-time pay for all 46 hours plus the bonus. It omits the additional overtime premium.
- B: $1,268 adds six hours of half-time at the $24 base rate. It fails to include the bonus in the regular rate.
- C: Straight-time pay is 46 x $24 = $1,104. Add $92, then divide $1,196 by 46: the regular rate is $26. Add 6 x $26 x 0.5 = $78, giving $1,274.
- D: This adds 1.5 times the regular rate for six hours on top of compensation that already includes straight-time pay for those hours. Only the additional half-time premium remains due.
Topic references: dol.gov reference 1
Total Rewards
12. A compensation analyst defines compa-ratio as an employee’s base salary divided by the salary-range midpoint. An employee earns $64,800 and the midpoint is $72,000. Which interpretation is accurate?
Answer and explanation for question 12
Skill reviewed: Calculate compa-ratio and distinguish a metric from a pay decision.
Best answer: A. The compa-ratio is 90%; appropriateness requires additional pay-policy and job information.
- A: $64,800 / $72,000 = 0.90, or 90%. Deciding whether to change pay also requires the organization’s pay policy and relevant employee, job, and market information.
- B: This reverses the specified numerator and denominator. The employee’s salary is lower, not higher, than the midpoint.
- C: An increase of about 11.1% would reach the midpoint, but the ratio is descriptive. No policy in the scenario requires every employee to be paid at midpoint.
- D: Ten percent is the shortfall relative to midpoint. The compa-ratio measures salary as a proportion of midpoint.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Total Rewards
13. A company’s data analyst role includes routine reporting but no staff supervision. A salary survey lists a substantially higher-paid analytics manager role with a similar internal job title. A department head wants to use that benchmark to raise the whole pay range. What should HR do before recommending a range change?
Answer and explanation for question 13
Skill reviewed: Evaluate the relevance of compensation benchmarks before adjusting a salary range.
Best answer: D. Match actual duties, scope, and required skills to relevant labor-market data, then assess internal relationships and cost.
- A: Choosing the highest value does not establish that it represents the work or labor market. It can create an unsupported pay structure.
- B: Averaging unrelated jobs can conceal rather than solve a job-matching problem.
- C: Titles can differ across organizations or conceal different responsibilities. The scenario explicitly identifies a scope mismatch.
- D: The manager benchmark may include responsibilities absent from this job. Matching the work first creates a sounder external comparison; internal equity and affordability still need review.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Total Rewards
14. A voluntary tuition-assistance benefit has low use among night-shift employees. Eligibility and reimbursement limits are identical across shifts. Interviews show that night-shift employees cannot attend required information sessions held only during daytime work hours, and many do not understand the application steps. Which initial intervention best addresses the evidence?
Answer and explanation for question 14
Skill reviewed: Use employee evidence to improve benefit communication and access.
Best answer: B. Improve shift-accessible guidance; track awareness and applications.
- A: A larger reimbursement may help if cost is the barrier, but the evidence identifies access to information and process understanding.
- B: This directly targets the reported barriers and defines observable follow-up measures. It tests whether improved access changes participation before redesigning the whole benefit.
- C: Low use can result from barriers as well as low demand. The interviews provide a reason not to treat utilization as a preference vote.
- D: This would reinforce the identified scheduling barrier rather than improve access to the existing benefit.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Employee Engagement
15. An employee survey’s favorable score rises from 68% to 82%, but participation falls from 76% to 22%. HR has not checked which departments or shifts are represented. The CEO wants to announce that engagement improved throughout the company. What should HR advise?
Answer and explanation for question 15
Skill reviewed: Interpret survey results without treating participation changes as irrelevant.
Best answer: A. Check participation patterns and corroborate the findings before making a company-wide improvement claim.
- A: The respondents may differ across periods or omit important groups. Examine safe aggregated participation data and gather additional evidence while respecting the survey’s confidentiality commitments.
- B: The observed score describes respondents. It does not, without further analysis, establish an improvement across the whole workforce.
- C: Assigning an opinion to every nonrespondent invents data. Nonresponse may have several causes.
- D: The scenario supplies no universal cutoff. Low participation is a limitation to investigate and disclose, not an automatic reason to erase all information.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Employee Engagement
16. A manager says an employee needs to be more proactive but cannot identify what successful performance would look like. The employee reports receiving conflicting priorities from two project leads. No misconduct or urgent safety issue is involved. What is the most useful first step for HR to facilitate?
Answer and explanation for question 16
Skill reviewed: Turn vague feedback into actionable performance expectations.
Best answer: C. Agree on specific outcomes, priority-setting authority, available support, and regular check-ins.
- A: A new label does not make the expectation observable or resolve the conflicting priorities.
- B: The facts do not establish a clear, communicated standard or a fair opportunity to meet it. A final warning skips the problem definition.
- C: This converts a vague judgment into work expectations and clarifies who resolves competing demands. Check-ins allow the manager and employee to identify barriers and adjust support.
- D: A popularity-based assessment is not a substitute for job-related standards and evidence of performance.
Topic references: opm.gov reference 1
Employee Engagement
17. Quarterly analysis finds that most voluntary departures in a customer-support unit occur during employees’ first 60 days. Exit interviews repeatedly cite unexpected weekend assignments and unclear escalation procedures. Pay is comparable with the company’s matched market benchmarks. Which pilot most directly tests a response to the reported problems?
Answer and explanation for question 17
Skill reviewed: Connect early-tenure retention evidence to a targeted employee-lifecycle intervention.
Best answer: B. Add an accurate schedule preview before hiring and role-specific onboarding with escalation practice and early check-ins.
- A: A long-service award does not address the reasons employees report leaving in their first two months.
- B: The schedule preview tests expectation alignment; targeted onboarding and check-ins address procedural uncertainty. Compare early-tenure outcomes with a defined baseline rather than assuming the pilot will solve all turnover.
- C: A referral incentive can change sourcing volume, but it does not correct the reported expectation and onboarding gaps.
- D: An annual survey is too indirect to address these immediate issues and is not a substitute for early performance guidance.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Employee Engagement
18. During performance-review calibration, a manager assigns a low annual rating based on two errors in the final week of the year. Records show the employee met the agreed measures throughout the preceding eleven months. The rating framework calls for assessment over the full review period. What should HR ask the manager to do?
Answer and explanation for question 18
Skill reviewed: Reduce recency bias while preserving evidence-based performance assessment.
Best answer: D. Reassess the rating against the agreed standards using evidence from the entire review period, including the errors.
- A: That substitutes a prediction for the stated annual assessment and overweights the most recent events.
- B: The errors are relevant evidence and should not be deleted merely to offset the manager’s emphasis.
- C: Across-the-board inflation does not correct the evidence or application of standards for this employee.
- D: This corrects recency-driven judgment without ignoring negative evidence. The final rating should reflect the framework and the full record, not a predetermined increase.
Topic references: opm.gov reference 1
Employee and Labor Relations
19. An employee requests leave beginning today for a potentially FMLA-qualifying reason. The covered private employer has employed the person for 14 months and has 60 employees at the worksite. In the preceding 12 months, the employee actually worked 1,200 hours and used 100 hours of paid vacation. No military-service credit or special airline flight-crew rule applies. Which assessment is correct?
Answer and explanation for question 19
Skill reviewed: Apply distinct FMLA eligibility tests without counting paid leave as hours worked.
Best answer: C. The employee is 50 hours short; assess other leave protections separately.
- A: Paid vacation is not counted as hours actually worked for this eligibility test. The relevant total is 1,200, not 1,300.
- B: Length of employment and hours of service are separate requirements. Meeting one does not waive the other.
- C: The ordinary hours threshold is 1,250 in the 12 months before leave starts. This employee is 50 hours short. That finding does not decide eligibility under other laws or employer policies.
- D: The ordinary employment-duration requirement is at least 12 months, not 24 months. The problem here is hours of service.
Topic references: dol.gov reference 1; dol.gov reference 2
Employee and Labor Relations
20. An employee at an ADA-covered employer tells HR that a medical condition makes sustained keyboard use difficult and asks about speech-to-text software. The employee does not mention the ADA or use an accommodation form. The condition and need are not obvious. What is the best next step?
Answer and explanation for question 20
Skill reviewed: Recognize and respond to an accommodation request without imposing unnecessary formalities.
Best answer: A. Discuss limitations and effective accommodations; request relevant documentation if needed.
- A: The request links a workplace change to a medical condition. HR should clarify the need and options; relevant, limited documentation may be appropriate when disability or need is not obvious.
- B: A request does not require legal terminology or a specific written form. Ignoring the initial request is not justified by those omissions.
- C: Documentation should be limited to what is needed to establish disability and accommodation need, not unrelated medical history.
- D: The requested option deserves consideration, but the objective is an effective reasonable accommodation. HR should assess the barrier and potential solutions rather than assume effectiveness.
Topic references: eeoc.gov reference 1
Employee and Labor Relations
21. At a nonunion private employer covered by the NLRA, a nonsupervisory employee presents a joint request from several coworkers for safer staffing levels and higher shift premiums. The manager wants to discipline the employee solely for organizing the request. There are no threats or other misconduct. Which response should HR recommend?
Answer and explanation for question 21
Skill reviewed: Identify protected concerted activity in a nonunion workplace.
Best answer: B. Protect the group action from discipline; evaluate the underlying request.
- A: NLRA concerted-activity protections can apply in nonunion workplaces. Union representation is not the deciding factor.
- B: An employee acting for coworkers about working conditions can engage in protected concerted activity. The proposed reason for discipline targets that activity.
- C: A single spokesperson can engage in protected activity on coworkers’ behalf. The number of speakers in the meeting is not the test.
- D: Protection from retaliation for concerted activity does not mean the employer must automatically grant every substantive demand.
Topic references: nlrb.gov reference 1
Employee and Labor Relations
22. A small employer under federal OSHA jurisdiction is exempt from routinely keeping OSHA injury logs because of its size. At 10 a.m. Monday, a worker is formally admitted as an inpatient for treatment of an injury sustained in the employer’s workshop at 8 a.m. that day. The employer learns of the admission immediately. No reporting exception applies. What is the federal severe-injury reporting obligation?
Answer and explanation for question 22
Skill reviewed: Distinguish OSHA severe-injury reporting from routine recordkeeping.
Best answer: D. Report the inpatient hospitalization within 24 hours of learning of it, no later than 10 a.m. Tuesday.
- A: An exemption from routine injury-log requirements does not remove the obligation to report qualifying severe injuries.
- B: Eight hours is the fatality-reporting deadline. This scenario concerns a nonfatal inpatient hospitalization.
- C: The requirement can apply to one employee. A later recordkeeping entry does not replace the timely severe-injury report.
- D: The admission is for treatment, occurs within 24 hours of the incident, and is immediately known to the employer. The 24-hour reporting deadline therefore runs to 10 a.m. Tuesday.
Topic references: osha.gov reference 1
Employee and Labor Relations
23. At a Title VII-covered employer, an employee complains to HR about conduct the employee reasonably and in good faith believes is sex discrimination. The next day, the supervisor proposes moving the employee to a less desirable shift and says the employee’s complaints are disrupting the team. The underlying discrimination complaint has not yet been resolved. What should HR do before approving a schedule change?
Answer and explanation for question 23
Skill reviewed: Separate retaliation risk from the merits of an underlying discrimination complaint.
Best answer: C. Pause the proposal, review its rationale independently, and prevent a change motivated by the protected complaint.
- A: Protection from retaliation does not depend on first proving the underlying discrimination allegation. The stated reason creates a separate concern.
- B: Protected activity does not create immunity from legitimate, nonretaliatory employment decisions. Those decisions still require a sound, consistent basis.
- C: The timing and supervisor’s statement warrant scrutiny. HR should separate any legitimate operational issue from an adverse change made because the employee raised an EEO concern.
- D: Conditioning review on withdrawal would penalize the employee for raising the concern rather than address the potential retaliation.
Topic references: eeoc.gov reference 1
HR Information Management
24. A payroll coordinator transfers into a recruiting role. The employee now needs applicant records but no longer performs payroll work. The HRIS still grants full payroll access, and the manager suggests leaving it in place in case it is useful someday. Which action best applies least privilege?
Answer and explanation for question 24
Skill reviewed: Apply role-based access review and least privilege after a job change.
Best answer: A. Remove obsolete access, grant necessary recruiting permissions, and document the review.
- A: Permissions should match current assigned tasks. Role changes are an opportunity to remove obsolete access while preserving the access needed to do the new job.
- B: Possible future convenience is not an established current business need. Retaining access expands exposure without supporting the assigned role.
- C: A shared administrator account grants excessive access and makes individual activity harder to attribute. It does not solve the role mismatch.
- D: Least privilege is not zero access. It permits the minimum access necessary for authorized work.
Topic references: csrc.nist.gov reference 1
HR Information Management
25. After an HRIS migration, a dashboard reports a sharp increase in company departures. A sample check shows that some internal transfers are coded as terminations. The dashboard definition counts only people who leave the company. Which corrective approach best restores reliable reporting?
Answer and explanation for question 25
Skill reviewed: Trace and correct data-quality errors without rewriting a metric to fit bad data.
Best answer: A. Reconcile source records, correct transfer mappings, and reprocess affected reporting periods.
- A: This tests the suspected cause, distinguishes genuine exits from transfers, and repairs the transformation while preserving an auditable history. Reprocessing affected periods enables a valid comparison.
- B: A caveat may accompany a temporary hold, but it does not repair a known classification problem before the metric is used for decisions.
- C: Some migrated terminations may be genuine. Deleting the whole set would replace one data-quality error with another and destroy evidence.
- D: Changing the business definition to fit faulty data conceals the error and makes the metric unsuitable for its stated purpose.
Topic references: hrci.org reference 1
Turn mistakes into a study assignment
For each miss, mark the cause: missing knowledge, a calculation error, or an assumption not supported by the scenario. Rework it without the answer key, then explain why the other three options fail. Use domain patterns to choose your next lesson, not a pass/fail label for this small set.
Adjust your study plan